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5 comments
DougMerritt (log😅 = 💧log😄)

@alexraffa @kupac @nixCraft
No, it is not certain, it's never been proven.

Most research mathematicians think it's likely, but that's not the same as certain, by any means.

alexraffa :unverified:

@dougmerritt @kupac @nixCraft yes, it has not been proven, it's fun to think every numer is contained in pi somewhere .. 👍

Allen Morris

@alexraffa @kupac @dougmerritt @nixCraft I would assume that every (finite) sequence of numbers appears in PI an infinite number of times: the proof is left as an exercise.

DougMerritt (log😅 = 💧log😄)

@gam3 @alexraffa @kupac @nixCraft
Well, your wild guess is unhelpful, since it's a famous unsolved problem in mathematics.

As I already said.

The field of study where personal opinion is superior to provable facts is modern politics, not mathematics.

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